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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which item does F represent?

61

A.    HDD 1
B.    TFP Module
C.    SuperCap Module
D.    CPU 2
E.    CMOS Battery

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?

71

A.    A is power button and power status LED;
B is identification button and LED;
C is system status LED;
D is network link activity LED.
B.    A is network link activity LED;
B is system status LED;
C is power button and power status LED;
D is identification button and LED.
C.    A is system status LED;
B is network link activity LED;
C is power button and power status LED;
D is identification button and LED.
D.    A is network link activity LED;
B is system status LED;
C is identification button and LED;
D is power button and power status LED.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Given:

11

Which option enables the code to compile?

12

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:

21

What is the result?

A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
B.    [Robb, Rick]
C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

Answer: A
Explanation:
After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

QUESTION 3
Given:

31

What is the result?

A.    C B A
B.    C
C.    A B C
D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given:

41

What is the result?

A.    3 4 5 6
B.    3 4 3 6
C.    5 4 5 6
D.    3 6 4 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

QUESTION 5
Given the code fragment:

51

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

A.    int[] array = new int[2];
B.    int[] array;
array = int[2];
C.    int array = new int[2];
D.    int array [2] ;

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

61

What is the result?

A.    A B C Work done
B.    A B C D Work done
C.    A Work done
D.    Compilation fails

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

QUESTION 8
Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

81

Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

82

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:
Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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QUESTION 1
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.

11

The PRODUCTS table contains 20 rows.
In the data that has been entered, the PROD_ID column contains only single digit values, PROD_NAMKhas a maximum of 5 characters, and RATE has 4 digit values for all rows.
Which two statements are true regarding the modifications that can be performed to the structure of the PRODUCTS table? (Choose two.)

A.    PROD_NAME size can be reduced from 10 to 5 characters.
B.    PROD_IP can be changed from CHAR to NUMBER data type.
C.    Now columns can be added only if they have NOT NULL constraint.
D.    PROD_RATE size can be changed from NUMBER (4) to NUMBER (6, 2).
E.    None of the existing columns can be dropped because they contain data.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Your database instance is running. A user, SCOTT, starts a SQL*Plus session, and issues the following query;

SQL>SELECT *
FROM sales:

Which process would retrieve the result from the database and return it to the client program?

A.    user process
B.    server process
C.    System Monitor (SMON)
D.    Process Monitor (PMON)
E.    Checkpoint process (CKPT)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Net? (Choose two.)

A.    It must reside only on the client for traditional client/server applications.
B.    It must reside only on the database server for web-based applications.
C.    It must reside on both the web server and database server for web-based applications.
D.    It must reside on both the client and database server for traditional client/server applications.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You have some operatingsystem scripts on one server that need to run in response to certain changes in data in your Oracle Database.
The mostefficient way to implement this with Oracle Database 11g would be:

A.    Write a PL/SQL routine that connects to the remote server and calls the script.
B.    Create a script on the database server to perform the remote action and thatscript from adatabase trigger.
C.    Modify the script on the remote server to periodically chock for these data change in your Oracle database.
D.    Install an Oracle Scheduler Agent on the remote server and create job to be called from Oracle scheduler in response to a database server event.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
View the exhibit. You are creating a database by using Database Configuration Assistant (DHCIA). You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism.
What would be the result of choosing this option?

51

A.    Disk mirroring and striping would be done automatically.
B.    The database files would be managed by the operating system’s file system.
C.    DBCA would not save the database files by using Optimal File Architecture (OFA).
D.    The data files are automatically spread across all available storage devices to optimize performance and resource utilization.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
View the exhibit. You plan to load the customer information that has been brought from a non Oracle database in the CUSTOMERS table in your database using the “Enterprise Manager Load Data From User File” option.
Which files should you create before using this option?

61

A.    only data file
B.    data file and log file
C.    data file and dump file
D.    data file and control file

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding the use of SQL in Oracle database? (Choose two)

A.    SQL is used to control access to the database and its objects.
B.    SQL can handle the creation of variables to store temporary values in a session.
C.    SQL allows a user to specify where the data is physically stored on the storage device.
D.    SQL is used to manipulate the data in binary file large objects (LOBs) that are stored outside the database.
E.    All SQL statements automatically use the optimizing that is available as part of Oracle database to determine the most efficient means of accessing data.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
You issue the following command as a DBA:

SQL> SHUTDOWN

What would be the outcome of the above command?

A.    It causes the instance to abort.
B.    It waits for all sessions to disconnect.
C.    It rolls back the current transactions and disconnects a/I sessions.
D.    It waits for the current transaction in each session to complete before disconnecting the sessions.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Enterprise Manager beacons are a feature of which 11g management pack?

A.    Provisioning and Patch Automation
B.    Database Diagnostics
C.    Configuration Management
D.    Real User Experience Insight

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is needed to establish monitoring of SSL-encrypted HTTP traffic?

A.    Monitoring of SSL traffic is not supported by RUEI.
B.    Installation of an SSL decryption card is required in the RUEI server.
C.    A copy of the SSL key and certificate need to be uploaded to RUEI.
D.    RUEI should negotiate a private SSL key/certificate pair with each Web server.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?

A.    An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
B.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
C.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
D.    A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
E.    A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
F.    ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD). However application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Note:
Hub Nodes are connected among them via private network and have direct access to the shared storage just like previous versions. These nodes are the ones that access the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD) directly.
Leaf Nodes are lighter and are not connected among them, neither accesses the shared storage like the Hub Nodes. Each Leaf Node communicates with the Hub Node that is attached to, and it is connected to the cluster via the Hub Node that is linked to.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about initialization parameters for Clustered ASM instances?

A.    A change to ASM_DISKSTRING requires a restart of all ASM instances for the change to take effect.
B.    ASM_POWER_LIMIT controls he number of RDBMS instances that can access a disk group while it isbeing rebalanced.
C.    The ASM_DISKGROUP parameter is optional.
D.    The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is ASM.
E.    The maximum value of ASM_POWER_LIMIT is 1024.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
C: The default value of the ASM_DISKGROUPS parameter is a NULL string. If the parameter value is NULL or is not specified, then ASM does not mount any disk groups.
E: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
D: The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is RDBMS.
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asminst.htm#BHCEHJGA

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true concerning diagnostic components and requirements of Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    There is one ologgered service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
B.    The Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database must run on a hub node if Flex Clusters areused.
C.    There is one osysmond service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
D.    The oclumon utility may be used to get and set parameters for the cluster health monitor (CHM) repository.
E.    The diagcollection.pl script must be run from the Grid home directory as the Grid infrastructure owner.
F.    The clusterware log files are stored inside the Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database usedby the cluster health monitor (CHM).

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: The Oracle Grid Infrastructure Management Repository Runs on one node in the cluster.This must be a Hub Node in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration.
C: There is one system monitor service on every node. The system monitor service (osysmond) is a real-time, monitoring and operating system metric collection service that sends the data to the cluster logger service.
D: Use the oclumon manage command to view and change configuration information from the system monitor service.
Syntax
   oclumon manage -repos {{changeretentiontime time} | {changerepossize
   memory_size}} | -get {key1 [key2 …] | alllogger [-details] | mylogger [-details]}
Where changerepossize memory_size: Use this option to change the CHM repository space limit to a specified number of MB.
Note: The OCLUMON command-line tool is included with CHM and you can use it to query the CHM repository to display node-specific metrics for a specified time period. You can also use OCLUMON to perform miscellaneous administrative tasks, such as changing the debug levels, querying the version of CHM, and changing the metrics database size.
Incorrect Answers:
E: You can collect CHM data from any node in the cluster by running the Grid_home/bin/diagcollection.pl script on the node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/troubleshoot.htm#CHDIGCEC

QUESTION 4
PROD1, PROD2 and PROD3 are three active instances of the PROD database.
Examine these commands executed on PROD1:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=200 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’*’; SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=100 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’PROD1′;

Which statement is true?

A.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for all instances of PROD.
B.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 100 for all instances of PROD.
C.    The second statement returns an error because this parameter must be identical for all isntances.
D.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for PROD2 and PROD3 and 100 for PROD1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
First SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS is set to 200 for all instances, then it is set to 100 for PROD1.

QUESTION 5
Which three events occur when a hub node fails in an Oracle Clusterware 12c Flex Cluster?

A.    The hub node is evicted from the cluster
B.    Leaf nodes connected to the failing hub node are reconnected to a surviving hub node without servicedisruption.
C.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving hub nodes.
D.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving leaf nodes.
E.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes.
F.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving leaf nodes.
G.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes or leafnodes, or both.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
F, G: Leaf Nodes are different from standard Oracle Grid Infrastructure nodes, in that they do not require direct access to shared storage, but instead request data through Hub Nodes. Hub Nodes can run in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration without having any Leaf Nodes as cluster member nodes, but Leaf Nodes must be members of a cluster that includes at least one Hub Node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/bigcluster.htm#CWADD92409

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Flex ASM in a Flex Cluster?

A.    Oracle databases from releases older than 12c cannot use Flex ASM.
B.    ASFS may only be configured on a hub node running an ASM instance.
C.    Instances of ASM-based databases on hosts that have no ASM instance running, require Flex ASM.
D.    Flex ASM requires that I/Os requests be sent through an ASM Proxy Instance, regardless of database andASM instance placement in a cluster.
E.    Hub nodes with connections from multiple leaf nodes must run an ASM instance.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Automatic Storage Management Cluster File System (Oracle ACFS) can only be run on the hub nodes, not the leaf nodes. Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD).
E: application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Oracle Flex ASM can be implemented in two ways:
Pure 12c Flex ASM (Same Version)
Both Grid Infrastructure (GI) and Database running on Oracle 12c
Pre Oracle 12c Mixed (Different Versions)
As normal ASM instance will run on each node with Flex configuration to support pre 12c database. The compatibility parameter of ASM disk group is used to manage the compatibility of between and among database instances. Advantage of this approach is that if an Oracle 12c database instance loses connectivity with an ASM instance, then the database connections will failover to another ASM instance on a different server. This failover is achieved by setting the cardinality to all.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true about the cluster file system archiving scheme?

A.    Each node can read only the archived logs written by itself.
B.    Nodes don’t use network to archive files.
C.    Each node can read the archive redo log files of the other nodes.
D.    Each node archives to a uniquely named local directory.
E.    Each node archives to a local directory with the same path on each cluster node.
F.    Each node writes to a single location on the cluster file system while archiving the redo log files.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
Initialization Parameter Settings for the Cluster File System Archiving Scheme
In the cluster file system scheme, each node archives to a directory that is identified with the same name on all instances within the cluster database (/arc_dest, in the following example). To configure this directory, set values for the LOG_ARCH_DEST_1 parameter, as shown in the following example:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/RACAD/rman.htm#RACAD320

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding multitenant architecture for RAC databases?

A.    One UNDO tablespace for each PDB is required.
B.    One UNDO tablespace for each instance is required.
C.    PDBs can have local temporary tablespaces.
D.    All the containers share the same SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
E.    You can open one, several, or all PDBs on one, several, or all CDB instances.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: For an Oracle RAC CDB, one active undo tablespace exists for each instance.
C: From a physical perspective, a CDB has basically the same structure as a non-CDB, except that each PDB has its own set of tablespaces (including its own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces) and data files.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/cdblogic.htm#CNCPT89268

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about ASM alias names?

A.    ASM files created using an alias name are not OMF files even if OMF is enabled.
B.    Alias file names cannot be used together with templates when creating tablespaces.
C.    ASM files created using an alias name are OMF files even if OMF is not enabled.
D.    Alias names can be stored only in user-defined directories.
E.    ASM files created using an alias name also have a fully qualified name and can be accessed by eithername.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true concerning activation of a user-defined policy in Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    When a policy is first created, it is initially active.
B.    When a policy is activated, nodes may be reassigned to server pools based on the policy definition.
C.    An administrator-defined policy may be activated using the srvctl utility.
D.    When a policy is activated, resources cannot be automatically started to comply with the policy definition.
E.    When a policy is first created, it is initially inactive.
F.    When a policy is activated, resources can be automatically stopped to comply with the policy definition.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
BE: You can activate policies when necessary, prompting Oracle Clusterware to reconfigure a server pool according to each policy’s configuration.
C: The following command activates the DayTime policy:
  $ crsctl modify policyset -attr “LAST_ACTIVATED_POLICY=DayTime”
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/pbmgmt.htm#CWADD92594

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QUESTION 21
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?

A.    VLAN
B.    Trunking
C.    Spanning tree
D.    Traffic filtering

Answer: A
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

QUESTION 22
A user does not have network connectivity. While testing the cable the technician receives the below reading on the cable tester:

1———–1
2———–2
3———–3
4———–4
5———–5
6———–6
7———–7
8———–8

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Cable is a crossover, continue troubleshooting
B.    Pin 3 is not used for data, continue troubleshooting
C.    Pin 3 is not used for data, replace the NIC
D.    Redo the cable’s connectors

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A technician needs multiple networks, high speeds, and redundancy on a system. Which of the following configurations should be considered for these requirements? (Select TWO).

A.    Routing table
B.    Next hop
C.    Port mirroring
D.    Port monitoring
E.    VLANs

Answer: CE
Explanation:
Port mirroring is used on a network switch to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to a network monitoring connection on another switch port. This is commonly used for network appliances that require monitoring of network traffic, such as an intrusion detection system, passive probe or real user monitoring (RUM) technology that is used to support application performance management (APM).
In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct
broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a Virtual Local Area Network, Virtual LAN or VLAN.

QUESTION 24
A technician decides to upgrade a router before leaving for vacation. While away, users begin to report slow performance. Which of the following practices allows other technicians to quickly return the network to normal speeds?

A.    Change management
B.    Baselines
C.    Asset management
D.    Cable management

Answer: A
Explanation:
As soon as technician found a problem he generates a change management request to make changes to fast up the speed of router.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following would a network administrator recommend to satisfy fault tolerance needs within the datacenter?

A.    Multimode fiber
B.    Setting up a new hot site
C.    Central KVM system
D.    Central UPS system

Answer: D
Explanation:
For unintruppted power supply we need ups as from this no power issue will come and our systems will remain safe.

QUESTION 26
During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need to be temporarily setup to take payments from customers. It has been determined that this will need to occur over a wireless network, with security being enforced where possible. Which of the following configurations should be used in this scenario?

A.    WPA2, SSID enabled, and 802.11n.
B.    WEP, SSID enabled, and 802.11b.
C.    WEP, SSID disabled, and 802.11g.
D.    WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a.

Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA2 is a security technology commonly used on Wi-Fi wireless networks. WPA2 (Wireless Protected Access 2) replaced the original WPA technology on all certified Wi-Fi hardware since 2006 and is based on the IEEE 802.11i technology standard for data encryption.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following wiring distribution types, often found in company closets, is used to connect wiring from individual offices to the main LAN cabling?

A.    MDF
B.    66 block
C.    IDF
D.    Patch panel

Answer: D
Explanation:
A patch panel, patch bay, patch field or jack field is a number of circuits, usually of the same or similar type, which appear on jacks for monitoring, interconnecting, and testing circuits in a convenient, flexible manner.

QUESTION 28
Which of the following network access security methods ensures communication occurs over a secured, encrypted channel, even if the data uses the Internet?

A.    MAC filtering
B.    RAS
C.    SSL VPN
D.    L2TP

Answer: C
Explanation:
SSL VPN consists of one or more VPN devices to which the user connects by using his Web browser. The traffic between the Web browser and the SSL VPN device is encrypted with the SSL protocol or its successor, the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol.

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the difference between 802.11b and 802.11g?

A.    Distance
B.    Frequency
C.    Speed
D.    Transmission power

Answer: C
Explanation:
802.11b has a maximum speed of 11Mbps whereas 802.11g has a speed of 54Mbps.

QUESTION 30
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?

A.    Ping
B.    Protocol analyzer
C.    Tracert
D.    Dig

Answer: C
Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

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