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QUESTION 31
After the completion of a site survey with Ekahau Site Survey tool, using the default color palette, it is noted that multiple areas are shown as white on the heat map when viewing 5 GHz signal strength data. What does this indicate about the signal strength?

A.    The area is below the minimum threshold configured on the tool.
B.    The area is below the detectable level and indicates no RF signal.
C.    The area is below -100 dBm at coverage cell edge.
D.    The area is below -67 dBm at coverage cell edge.

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to when determining where APs can be installed?

A.    Local or National Building Code
B.    IEEE
C.    BICSI TDMM
D.    Cisco Hardware Installation Guide

Answer: D

QUESTION 33
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?

A.    overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points
B.    overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
C.    continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
D.    continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A.    Use APs with external antennas.
B.    Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.
C.    Use APs with built-in antennas.
D.    Use a battery pack to power APs.
E.    Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.
F.    Use APs with directional antennas.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 35
An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation.
What is the coverage area from the AP if the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration?

A.    225 feet
B.    80 feet
C.    150 feet
D.    100 feet

Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)

A.    Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B.    Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C.    Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installation is complete.
D.    Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems.
E.    Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 37
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a floor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices. Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new floor?

A.    Data Coverage Support Margin
B.    Demand Settings
C.    Add AP Field
D.    802.11n Protocol Support

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/prime_infrastructure/1-2/configuration/guide/pi_12_cg/maps.html#pgfId-1671104

QUESTION 38
What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?

A.    11 Mb/s
B.    36 Mb/s
C.    12 Mb/s
D.    18 Mb/s

Answer: C

QUESTION 39
An engineer is conducting a location readiness test and wants a selected point to be considered location-ready. Which three possible configurations reflect the minimum number of APs needed? (Choose three.)

A.    One AP is resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-question.
B.    One AP per 1400 sq. ft. on the map.
C.    Two APs are resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in- question.
D.    Four APs are deployed on the floor.
E.    Three APs are within 70 feet (21 meters) of the point-in- question
F.    Three APs are deployed on the floor.

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/CMX/CMX_LocFund.pdf

QUESTION 40
A network engineer is configuring QoS with a DSCP value of 46. To which queue must the CoS be mapped for priority queuing of the voice frames?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    5
D.    4
E.    3

Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
What network technology provides Layer 2 high availability between the access and distribution layers?

A.    HSRP
B.    MEC
C.    EIGRP
D.    GLBP

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
On which two types of links should routing protocol peerings be established according to best practice? (Choose two.)

A.    distribution links
B.    end user links
C.    transit links
D.    core links

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/HA_campus_DG/hacampusdg.html#wp1107923

QUESTION 33
An HSRP design requirement states that preemption must be enabled for the active switch, which is a Cisco 4507R. Assume a boot time of 300 seconds.
Which setting of the preemption delay timer minimizes the loss of traffic?

A.    50 seconds
B.    100 seconds
C.    150 seconds
D.    200 seconds

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/HA_campus_DG/hacampusdg.html#wp1107923
The recommended best practice is to measure the system boot time, and set the HSRP preempt delay statement to 50 percent greater than this value. This ensures that the HSRP primary distribution node has established full connectivity to all parts of the network before HSRP preemption is allowed to occur”-> We can’t choose 450 seconds so we take the higher delay available..

QUESTION 34
What is the next action taken by the Cisco NAC Appliance after it identifies a vulnerability on a client device?

A.    denies the client network resource access
B.    repairs the effected devices
C.    generates a Syslog message
D.    permits the client but limits to guest access

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/nac/appliance/configuration_guide/47/cam/47cam-book/m_intro.html
“Cisco NAC Appliance compliance policies reduce the threat of computer viruses, worms, and other malicious code on your network. Cisco NAC Appliance is a powerful tool that enables you to enforce network access requirements, detect security threats and vulnerabilities on clients, and distribute patches, antivirus and antispyware software. It lets you block access or quarantine users who do not comply with your security requirements, thereby stopping viruses and worms at the edge of the network, before they can do harm.”

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. A customer requires a web application implementation, but the web server has communication only to the application server and users, and the database server has communication only to the application server. What firewall design is the best fit for this scenario?

351

A.    transparent mode with the servers on the same subnet
B.    routed mode with three security zones
C.    transparent mode with three security zones
D.    routed mode with two security zones

Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which route summarization most efficiently reduces perceived network complexity that is composed of subnetworks ranging from 172.16.20.0/24 to 172.16.36.0/24?

A.    172.16.8.0/21
B.    172.16.8.0/19
C.    172.16.20.0/20
D.    172.16.0.0/18
E.    172.16.20.0/19

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
What is the recommended subnet between two sites that have a point-to-point connection to conserve IP addresses?

A.    255.255.255.0
B.    255.255.252.0
C.    255.255.255.252
D.    255.255.255.240

Answer: C

QUESTION 38
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?

A.    Layer 1
B.    Layer 2
C.    Layer 3
D.    Layer 4

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?

A.    Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B.    Johnson’s algorithm
C.    Dijkstra’s algorithm
D.    Floyd-Warshall algorithm

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which unique EIGRP feature allows for faster Layer 3 convergence?

A.    fast EIGRP timers
B.    feasible successors
C.    hybrid routing protocol
D.    Cisco proprietary protocol

Answer: B

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QUESTION 51
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A.    regex-string (\x03[Tt][Hh][Ee]\x05[Bb][Ll][Oo][Cc][Kk])
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QUESTION 31
A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?

A.    HTTPS
B.    NetBIOS
C.    CIFS
D.    HTTP

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
You are configuring a Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway to operate with DVTI support. Which command must you configure on the virtual template?

A.    tunnel protection ipsec
B.    ip virtual-reassembly
C.    tunnel mode ipsec
D.    ip unnumbered

Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which protocol supports high availability in a Cisco IOS SSL VPN environment?

A.    HSRP
B.    VRRP
C.    GLBP
D.    IRDP

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
When you configure IPsec VPN High Availability Enhancements, which technology does Cisco recommend that you enable to make reconvergence faster?

A.    EOT
B.    IP SLAs
C.    periodic IKE keepalives
D.    VPN fast detection

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which hash algorithm is required to protect classified information?

A.    MD5
B.    SHA-1
C.    SHA-256
D.    SHA-384

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?

A.    HIPPA DES
B.    AES-128
C.    RC4-128
D.    AES-256

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which Cisco firewall platform supports Cisco NGE?

A.    FWSM
B.    Cisco ASA 5505
C.    Cisco ASA 5580
D.    Cisco ASA 5525-X

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE?

A.    3DES
B.    AES
C.    DES
D.    RSA

Answer: D

QUESTION 39
Which encryption and authentication algorithms does Cisco recommend when deploying a Cisco NGE supported VPN solution?

A.    AES-GCM and SHA-2
B.    3DES and DH
C.    AES-CBC and SHA-1
D.    3DES and SHA-1

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?

A.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelall
split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C.    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
D.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-network-list splitlist
E.    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224

Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
Which three components comprise the Cisco ISE profiler? (Choose three.)

A.    the sensor, which contains one or more probes
B.    the probe manager
C.    a monitoring tool that connects to the Cisco ISE
D.    the trigger, which activates ACLs
E.    an analyzer, which uses configured policies to evaluate endpoints
F.    a remitter tool, which fails over to redundant profilers

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 32
Which three statements about the Cisco ISE profiler are true? (Choose three.)

A.    It sends endpoint data to AAA servers.
B.    It collects endpoint attributes.
C.    It stores MAC addresses for endpoint systems.
D.    It monitors and polices router and firewall traffic.
E.    It matches endpoints to their profiles.
F.    It stores endpoints in the Cisco ISE database with their profiles.

Answer: BEF

QUESTION 33
From which location can you run reports on endpoint profiling?

A.    Reports > Operations > Catalog > Endpoint
B.    Operations > Reports > Catalog > Endpoint
C.    Operations > Catalog > Reports > Endpoint
D.    Operations > Catalog > Endpoint

Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which two services are included in the Cisco ISE posture service? (Choose two.)

A.    posture administration
B.    posture run-time
C.    posture monitoring
D.    posture policing
E.    posture catalog

Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
What is a requirement for posture administration services in Cisco ISE?

A.    at least one Cisco router to store Cisco ISE profiling policies
B.    Cisco NAC Agents that communicate with the Cisco ISE server
C.    an ACL that points traffic to the Cisco ISE deployment
D.    the advanced license package must be installed

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which two statements about Cisco NAC Agents that are installed on clients that interact with the Cisco ISE profiler are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They send endpoint data to AAA servers.
B.    They collect endpoint attributes.
C.    They interact with the posture service to enforce endpoint security policies.
D.    They block access from the network through noncompliant endpoints.
E.    They store endpoints in the Cisco ISE with their profiles.
F.    They evaluate clients against posture policies, to enforce requirements.

Answer: CF

QUESTION 37
What steps must you perform to deploy a CA-signed identify certificate on an ISE device?

A.    1. Download the CA server certificate.
2. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4. Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
B.    1. Download the CA server certificate.
2. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4. Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
C.    1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2. Download the CA server certificate.
3. Access the ISE server and submit the CA request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
D.    1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2. Download the CA server certificate.
3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4. Install the issued certificate on the ISE.

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
What implementation must be added to the WLC to enable 802.1X and CoA for wireless endpoints?

A.    the ISE
B.    an ACL
C.    a router
D.    a policy server

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
What are the initial steps must you perform to add the ISE to the WLC?

A.    1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2, Navigate to Administration > Authentication > New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
B.    1. With a Web browser, establish an FTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Security > Administration > New.
3. Add additional security features for FTP authentication.
C.    1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Authentication > New.
3. Enter ACLs and Authentication methods to begin the configuration.
D.    1. With a Web browser connect, establish an HTTPS connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Security > Authentication > New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.

Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Which command configures console port authorization under line con 0?

A.    authorization default|WORD
B.    authorization exec line con 0|WORD
C.    authorization line con 0|WORD
D.    authorization exec default|WORD

Answer: D

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QUESTION 31
Where in the Cisco ASA appliance CLI are Active/Active Failover configuration parameters configured?

A.    admin context
B.    customer context
C.    system execution space
D.    within the system execution space and admin context
E.    within each customer context and admin context

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary protocols?

A.    network
B.    ICMP
C.    protocol
D.    TCP-UDP
E.    service

Answer: E

QUESTION 33
Which Cisco ASA show command groups the xlates and connections information together in its output?

A.    show conn
B.    show conn detail
C.    show xlate
D.    show asp
E.    show local-host

Answer: E

QUESTION 34
When a Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode, within which configuration are the interfaces allocated to the security contexts?

A.    each security context
B.    system configuration
C.    admin context (context with the “admin” role)
D.    context startup configuration file (.cfg file)

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
When troubleshooting redundant interface operations on the Cisco ASA, which configuration should be verified?

A.    The nameif configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
B.    The MAC address configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
C.    The active interface is sending periodic hellos to the standby interface.
D.    The IP address configuration on the logical redundant interface is correct.
E.    The duplex and speed configuration on the logical redundant interface are correct.

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
On the Cisco ASA, where are the Layer 5-7 policy maps applied?

A.    inside the Layer 3-4 policy map
B.    inside the Layer 3-4 class map
C.    inside the Layer 5-7 class map
D.    inside the Layer 3-4 service policy
E.    inside the Layer 5-7 service policy

Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A Cisco ASA requires an additional feature license to enable which feature?

A.    transparent firewall
B.    cut-thru proxy
C.    threat detection
D.    botnet traffic filtering
E.    TCP normalizer

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which four are IPv6 First Hop Security technologies? (Choose four.)

A.    Send
B.    Dynamic ARP Inspection
C.    Router Advertisement Guard
D.    Neighbor Discovery Inspection
E.    Traffic Storm Control
F.    Port Security
G.    DHCPv6 Guard

Answer: ACDG

QUESTION 39
IPv6 addresses in an organization’s network are assigned using Stateless Address
Autoconfiguration. What is a security concern of using SLAAC for IPv6 address assignment?

A.    Man-In-The-Middle attacks or traffic interception using spoofed IPv6 Router Advertisements
B.    Smurf or amplification attacks using spoofed IPv6 ICMP Neighbor Solicitations
C.    Denial of service attacks using TCP SYN floods
D.    Denial of Service attacks using spoofed IPv6 Router Solicitations

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which two parameters must be configured before you enable SCP on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    SSH
B.    authorization
C.    ACLs
D.    NTP
E.    TACACS+

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 31
How many links are there between a second-generation IOM (Cisco UCS 2204 or 2208) and a third- generation half-width blade (Cisco UCS B200 M3 or B22 M3) in a Cisco UCS system?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which policy would you change to form a port channel between a Cisco UCS 6248 and a Cisco UCS 2208?

A.    link aggregation policy
B.    chassis discovery policy
C.    IOM connection policy
D.    link discovery policy

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
The Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects offer a new feature that allows dynamic port allocation for all of the 10 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. What are these ports called?

A.    universal ports
B.    flex ports
C.    unified ports
D.    converged ports

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
In which situation would you be required to change a Cisco UCS system from end-host mode to switching mode?

A.    Design requirements call for the use of fabric failover.
B.    Fabric interconnect is connecting to disjoint Layer 2 networks upstream.
C.    HSRP routers are directly connected to the fabric interconnect.
D.    Upstream Cisco Nexus 5000 is configured for vPC.

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate Cisco UCS adapter on the right, where the adapter supports that characterishtic.

351

Answer:

352

QUESTION 36
Drag and Drop Question
The Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a Cisco Unified Computing B-Series server provides a number of features. Drag the functionality on the left to the appropriate feature on the right.

361

Answer:

362

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QUESTION 41
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been operated indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to Isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?

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B.    R2
C.    R3
D.    R4
E.    DSW1
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QUESTION 31
Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?

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B.    switch# show spanning-tree bridge
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D.    switch# show spanning-tree summary
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QUESTION 21
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?

A.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B.    PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C.    PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpn-cli/vpn-pppoe.html

QUESTION 22
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?

A.    discover messages
B.    DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C.    traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D.    DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.html

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?

231

A.    distribute list 1 out
B.    distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C.    distribute list 2 out
D.    distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0

Answer: D
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8 networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

QUESTION 24
Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le 24?

A.    10.9.1.0/24
B.    10.8.0.0/24
C.    10.8.0.0/16
D.    10.8.0.0/23

Answer: B
Explanation:
With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to 24 and less than or equal to 24. This translates to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
Only the choice of 10.8.0.0.24 matches this.

QUESTION 25
Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output.
Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?

A.    OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B.    The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C.    An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
D.    IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/command/reference/ipv6_book/ipv6_16.html

QUESTION 26
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address.
Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?

A.    IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B.    The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C.    IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D.    The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E.    IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identify them EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address.
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bit-address

QUESTION 27
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?

A.    Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
B.    Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C.    Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D.    All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified Ipv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message. RA messages typically include the following information:
One or more onlink Ipv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure their Ipv6 addresses
Lifetime information for each prefix included in the advertisement
Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be completed
Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default router)
Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that it originates
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/ip6-addrg_bsc_con.html

QUESTION 28
A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the user to open a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions.
After doing this, the user is able to access company shares.
Which type of remote access did the engineer enable?

A.    EZVPN
B.    IPsec VPN client access
C.    VPDN client access
D.    SSL VPN client access

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client provides secure SSL connections to the security appliance for remote users. Without a previously installed client, remote users enter the IP address in their browser of an interface configured to accept SSL VPN connections. Unless the security appliance is configured to redirect http:// requests to https://, users must enter the URL in the form https://<address>.
After entering the URL, the browser connects to that interface and displays the login screen. If the user satisfies the login and authentication, and the security appliance identifies the user as requiring the client, it downloads the client that matches the operating system of the remote computer. After downloading, the client installs and configures itself, establishes a secure SSL connection and either remains or uninstalls itself (depending on the security appliance configuration) when the connection terminates.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-series-next-generation-firewalls/100936-asa8x-split-tunnel-anyconnect-config.html

QUESTION 29
Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express Forwarding?

A.    FlexVPN
B.    DMVPN
C.    GETVPN
D.    Cisco Easy VPN

Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual private network (VPN) supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP and Ipsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for creating a dynamic-mesh VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel end-point peers, including Ipsec (Internet Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially configured to build out a hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes. Using this initial hub- and-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh) without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates the need for any load on the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
DMVPN is combination of the following technologies:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Multipoint_Virtual_Private_Network

QUESTION 30
A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during maintenance windows, as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the network respond accordingly. Which action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?

A.    Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during maintenance.
B.    Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
C.    Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
D.    Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The standby track command allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group. If the line protocol of the specified interface goes down, the HSRP priority is reduced. This means that another HSRP router with higher priority can become the active router if that router has standby preempt enabled. Loopback interfaces can be tracked, so when this interface is shut down the HSRP priority for that router will be lowered and the other HSRP router will then become the active one.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot-standby-router-protocol-hsrp/13780-6.html

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QUESTION 41
Cisco Unified Communications Manager is configured with CAC for a maximum of 10 voice calls.
Which action routes the 11th call through the PSTN?

A.    Configure an SIP trunk to the ISR.
B.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager AAR.
C.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager RSVP-enabled locations.
D.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations. Continue reading “[May 2018] 100% Pass Lead2pass 300-075 New Questions Free Version 423q”

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