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Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)

A.    Utilize the vmdir command.
B.    Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C.    Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D.    Utilize the dc rep command.

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Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)

A.    Utilize the vmdir command.
B.    Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C.    Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D.    Utilize the dc rep command.

Answer: AB
To manage VMware directory service, you can use vmdir command and vsphere web client. VMware directory service is always managed using vmdir command which is specifically used for directory services.

What are two sample roles that are provided with vCenter Server by default? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual machine User
B.    Network Administrator
C.    Content Library Administrator
D.    Storage Administrator

Answer: AB
https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=35TE4cSycNAC&pg=PA97&lpg=PA97&dq=sample+roles+that+are+provided+with+vCenter+Server+by+default&source=bl&ots=ggd5VKGky5 &sig=-lc0Juby-tkvddWsrG_zHgEDTQY&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CDcQ6AEwBWoVChMIlZH2x8WExgIVxDoUCh2N1AC2#v=onepage&q=sample%20roles%20that%20are%20provided%20with%20vCenter%20Server%20by%20default&f=false

Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)

A.    CIM Server
B.    Single Sign-On
C.    Direct Console UI
D.    Syslog Server
E.    vSphere Web Access

Answer: ACD

An administrator would like to use the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) as an Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA). The first two steps performed are:

– Replace the Root Certificate
– Replace Machine Certificates (Intermediate CA)

Which two steps would need to be performed next? (Choose two.)

A.    Replace Solution User Certificates (Intermediate CA)
B.    Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate (Intermediate CA)
C.    Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate
D.    Replace Solution User Certificates

Answer: AC
You can replace the VMCA root certificate with a third-party CA-signed certificate that includes VMCA in the certificate chain. Going forward, all certificates that VMCA generates include the full chain. You can replace existing certificates with newly generated certificates. This approach combines the security of third-party CA-signed certificate with the convenience of automated certificate management.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-5FE583A2-3737-4B62-A905-5BB38D479AE0.html

Which three options are available for ESXi Certificate Replacement? (Choose three.)

A.    VMware Certificate Authority mode
B.    Custom Certificate Authority mode
C.    Thumbprint mode
D.    Hybrid Deployment
E.    VMware Certificate Endpoint Authority Mode

Answer: ABC
You can perform different types of certificate replacement depending on company policy and requirements for the system that you are configuring. You can perform each replacement with the vSphere Certificate Manager utility or manually by using the CLIs included with your installation.
VMCA is included in each Platform Services Controller and in each embedded deployment. VMCA provisions each node, each vCenter Server solution user, and each ESXi host with a certificate that is signed by VMCA as the certificate authority. vCenter Server solution users are groups of vCenter Server services. See vSphere Security for a list of solution users.
You can replace the default certificates. For vCenter Server components, you can use a set of command-line tools included in your installation. You have several options.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%2FGUID-4469A6D3-048A-471C-9CB4-518A15EA2AC0.html

Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi 6.x host and users are restricted from logging into the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI).
Which two statements are true given this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    A user granted administrative privileges in the Exception User list can login.
B.    A user defined in the DCUI.Access without administrative privileges can login.
C.    A user defined in the ESXi Admins domain group can login.
D.    A user set to the vCenter Administrator role can login.

Answer: AB
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319-F8991839D265.html

Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with administrator privileges?

A.    Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B.    Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C.    No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D.    Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.

Answer: B
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319-F8991839D265.html

A common root user account has been configured for a group of ESXi 6.x hosts.
Which two steps should be taken to mitigate security risks associated with this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    Remove the root user account from the ESXi host.
B.    Set a complex password for the root account and limit its use.
C.    Use ESXi Active Directory capabilities to assign users the administrator role.
D.    Use Lockdown mode to restrict root account access.

Answer: BC
To address the security risks, you need to set a complex password for the root account and make sure only authorized personnel use it. The second step is to use ESXi active directory to assign the administrator role to users.

An administrator wants to configure an ESXi 6.x host to use Active Directory (AD) to manage users and groups. The AD domain group ESX Admins is planned for administrative access to the host.
Which two conditions should be considered when planning this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    If administrative access for ESX Admins is not required, this setting can be altered.
B.    The users in ESX Admins are not restricted by Lockdown Mode.
C.    An ESXi host provisioned with Auto Deploy cannot store AD credentials.
D.    The users in ESX Admins are granted administrative privileges in vCenter Server.

Answer: AC
The setting can be altered if administrative access for ESX admins is not required. The second rule is that the ESX admins users should not be restricted by Lockdown mode.

Which two advanced features should be disabled for virtual machines that are only hosted on a vSphere system? (Choose two.)

A.    isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable
B.    isolation.tools.ghi.launchmenu.change
C.    isolation.tools.bbs.disable
D.    isolation.tools.hgfsServerSet.enable

Answer: AB
Because VMware virtual machines run in many VMware products in addition to vSphere, some virtual machine parameters do not apply in a vSphere environment. Although these features do not appear in vSphere user interfaces, disabling them reduces the number of vectors through which a guest operating system could access a host. Use the following .vmx setting to disable these features:
isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.l”unch”enu.change = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.a”tolo”on.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.hgfsS”rver”et.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.memSc”edFa”eSampleStats.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.getCr”ds.d”sable = “TRUE”
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vmtools.install.doc%2FGUID-685722FA-9009-439C-9142-18A9E7C592EA.html

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A Long-Distance vMotion migration cannot complete.
Which three situations could cause this? (Choose three.)

A.    The license currently in use for the two hosts in vSphere Enterprise Edition.
B.    The round-trip time between the hosts is greater than 150 milliseconds.
C.    The virtual machine is configured to use Virtual NVMe disks.
D.    The vMotion traffic to the destination host is on the default TCP/IP stack.
E.    The license currently in use for the two hosts is vSphere Enterprise Plus Edition.

Answer: BDE

Which Distributed Switch Load Balancing option requires configuration of the physical Ethernet switch to operate properly?

A.    Route based on originating virtual port
B.    Use explicit failover
C.    Route based on IP hash
D.    Route based on physical NIC load
E.    Route based on source MAC hash

Answer: C

Which two choices are valid ways to patch an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

A.    utilizing the esxcli Command Line Interface
B.    vSphere Update Manager
C.    vRealize Operations Manager
D.    configuring a Host Profile

Answer: AB

Which three virtual hardware configurations will allow snapshots? (Choose three.)

A.    Physical Mode RDMs
B.    bus sharing
C.    Full memory reservation
D.    Virtual Mode RDMs
E.    16+ vCPU

Answer: BDE

What tool is utilized for detailed performance monitoring of the vCenter Server Appliance?

A.    vim-cmd
B.    esxtop
C.    Perfmon
D.    vimtop

Answer: B

Which is the VDP appliance available storage configuration maximum?

A.    2 TB
B.    62 TB
C.    8 TB
D.    4 TB

Answer: A

A vSphere Administrator has been tasked with ensuring that 500 virtual desktops are unable to communicate with one another, but can communicate with required services.
Which two solutions does VMware recommend? (Choose two.)

A.    VMware NSX Distributed Firewall
B.    Private VLAN
C.    vSphere Host Firewall
D.    Port Filtering

Answer: BC

What is the maximum supported number of Virtual SCSI adapters per VM in vSphere 6.5?

A.    8
B.    4
C.    2
D.    6

Answer: B
https://www.vmware.com/pdf/vsphere6/r65/vsphere-65-configuration-maximums.pdf (page 9)

A VMware vSphere 6.x Administrator is tasked with expanding a current vRealize Log Insight Deployment.
What two steps will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    Run the startup wizard and select Join Existing Deployment.
B.    Login to the vRealize Log Insight Management UI and select Add New Node.
C.    Deploy another vRealize Log Insight server from the OVF.
D.    Deploy and install vRealize Log Insight on a new Linux virtual machine.

Answer: AB

Which two resource types can be limited on the vApp level? (Choose two.)

A.    CPU
B.    Storage
C.    Memory
D.    Network

Answer: BD

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Scenario: A Citrix user is connecting to a Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) in an environment where Flash redirection is enabled for the entire Site with the default settings. However, the HDX protocol is NOT able to determine network security.
What will occur when the user attempts to access Flash content within the user session for the first time?

A.    A dialog box appear and lets the user choose how Flash is handled for that session.
B.    No dialog box appears and Flash content is automatically played on the server.
C.    A dialog box appears and lets the user choose how Flash is handled for future sessions.
D.    No dialog box appears and Flash content is automatically played on the client device.

Answer: C

Which three provisioning Services components can be located on the Provisioning Services server? (Choose three.)

A.    Store
B.    Provisioning Services Management console
C.    DHCP, PXE and TFTP Services
D.    Device collection
E.    Target device

Answer: CDE

What is the default priority order for selecting the preferred zone in a multi-zone XenApp and XenDesktop environment?

A.    User Location; Application Home; User Home
B.    User Home; Application Home; User Location
C.    Application Home, User Home; User Location
D.    User Location; User Home; Application Home
E.    Application Home; User Location; User Home

Answer: C

Which three actions are necessary when using the versioning vDisk update process? (Choose three.)

A.    Perform updates using a single target device.
B.    Make a full copy of the vDisk.
C.    Put the vDisk into Private mode.
D.    Create a maintenance version of the vDisk
E.    Promote the changes to production.
F.    Update the properties of the production target devices to use the updated vDisk.

Answer: CDF

A Citrix Engineer needs to give users access to a new application which requires the installation of an additional application in order to function correctly.
Which layer should the engineer use while layering this new application for the users?

A.    App Layer
B.    Prerequisite Layer
C.    Platform Layer
D.    Elastic Layer

Answer: B

How can a Citrix Engineer update applications in an AppLayering environment?

A.    Create a new application layer and install the updated version of the application in it.
B.    Grant the user administrative rights to update the applications.
C.    Install applications with automatic updates into the OS layer.
D.    Enable automatic updates in the App Layers.

Answer: A

After an administrator restarts a XenApp server, the XenApp Administrator notices that the IMA
Service is NOT starting.
Which two components could be causing the issue? (Choose two.)

A.    RPC Service
B.    Local host cache
C.    Citrix Streaming Service
D.    Remote Desktop Service

Answer: AB

Scenario: A Citrix XenApp Administrator plans to integrate a new application. This application is profiled to be streamed to a group of users and will be published to be streamed to the client.
Some users are able to launch the streamed application but a few of them are NOT able to do so.
What could cause this issue?

A.    The administrator did NOT install Citrix Receiver.
B.    The administrator did NOT configure Citrix Receiver.
C.    The administrator did NOT install the Citrix Offline Plug-in.
D.    The administrator did NOT configure the Citrix Offline Plug-in.

Answer: C

Scenario: The XenApp Administrator is using application streaming to provide users with access to their applications. A user reports that after launching a streamed application, the application hangs during launch.
Which step should the administrator take first to resolve the issue?

A.    Flush the RADE cache.
B.    Reprofile the application.
C.    Enable Inter-Isolation Communication.
D.    Update Citrix Receiver to the latest version.

Answer: A

Scenario: An administrator has enabled a Citrix policy called HDX Policy that enables extra compression for moving and still images for user connections greater than 400 Kbps.
Branch Repeater VPX is then deployed to all remote offices; however, users report NO appreciable benefits.
Which change should be made to HDX Policy?

A.    Session Reliability should be disabled.
B.    The Branch Repeater filter should be invoked.
C.    Overall session bandwidth should be added to the policy.
D.    The threshold value should be increased by 100-200 Kbps.

Answer: B

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What does a Citrix Administrator need to do on NetScaler Gateway to ensure that users accept the terms and conditions before they can log on using NetScaler Gateway?

A.    Configure a Responder policy.
B.    Upload an HTML file to the NetScaler appliance.
C.    Create an end user license agreement (EULA).
D.    Configure a Rewrite policy.

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A Citrix Administrator needs to update a master image for random/non-persistent desktops based on Machine Creation Services.

Which consequence does the administrator need to be aware of when updating the master image?

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Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to set up an alert on a service that is important for Desktop OS machine performance. The infrastructure includes 3000 Desktop OS machines and two Provisioning Services servers.

Which service on the Provisioning Services server should the administrator monitor?

A.    TFTP
B.    BootP
C.    Stream
D.    Two-Stage Boot

Answer: C

Which tool could a Citrix Administrator use to generate a graphical performance report of memory for the last two quarters?

A.    XenCenter
B.    Citrix Studio
C.    Citrix Director
D.    XenServer tools
E.    Provisioning Services Console

Answer: A

Scenario: A line of business application has been deployed as a hosted server application in XenDesktop. The deadline for a critical project is quickly approaching. Users report that the application is slower than usual. The Server OS machines are non-persistent.

Where should a Citrix Administrator gather information to resolve the performance issue?

A.    Citrix Studio
B.    Citrix Director
C.    Provisioning Services vDisk statistics
D.    Performance Monitor on the Delivery Controller

Answer: B

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator performed maintenance activities in a XenDesktop environment. The next day, a second Citrix Administrator discovers that server-hosted applications are missing from Citrix Receiver.

Where could the second administrator go to determine the cause of this issue?

A.    Citrix Director
B.    StoreFront store
C.    Configuration Logging
D.    Delivery Controller Windows Event logs

Answer: C

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator manages a XenDesktop site for a Call Center consisting of 2000 Desktop OS machines. Many users are unable to log on to the Desktop OS machines.
The administrator suspects there is an issue with the Desktop OS machines that is impacting the user’s ability to log on.

Where should the administrator look to gather information about this issue?

A.    HDX Insight in Citrix Director
B.    Logging node of Citrix Studio
C.    Citrix Director on the Failed Desktop OS machines node
D.    The Provisioning Services Console on the Device Collection node

Answer: C

Scenario: Users in an environment access hosted applications from thin clients connected to overhead projectors. Some of these users have complained about delays and interruptions in the video playing when viewing videos that require Adobe Flash player.

Where could a Citrix Administrator gather information to resolve this issue?

A.    Logging node in Citrix Studio
B.    Session Detail in Citrix Director
C.    Activity Manager in Citrix Director
D.    Event logs on the Delivery Controller

Answer: B

Where in Citrix Director could a Citrix Administrator validate that Flash Redirection is enabled?

A.    User Details
B.    Activity Monitor
C.    The Network tab
D.    The Sessions tab

Answer: A

Where in Citrix Director could a Citrix Administrator monitor slow performing applications?

A.    Dashboard
B.    Sessions tab
C.    User session details
D.    Logon performance tab

Answer: C

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Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B.    Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
C.    Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D.    Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E.    Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.

Answer: BE

Which of the following BEST describes a routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are removed from a string?

A.    Error handling to protect against program exploitation
B.    Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks
C.    Input validation to protect against SQL injection
D.    Padding to protect against string buffer overflows

Answer: C

Which of the following is an important step to take BEFORE moving any installation packages from a test environment to production?

A.    Roll back changes in the test environment
B.    Verify the hashes of files
C.    Archive and compress the files
D.     Update the secure baseline

Answer: A

Which of the following cryptographic attacks would salting of passwords render ineffective?

A.    Brute force
B.    Dictionary
C.    Rainbow tables
D.     Birthday

Answer: B

A network administrator wants to implement a method of securing internal routing.
Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.    DMZ
B.    NAT
C.    VPN
D.    PAT

Answer: C

Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow?

A.    Public
B.    Private
C.    Shared
D.    Session

Answer: D

A senior incident response manager receives a call about some external IPs communicating with internal computers during off hours. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this issue?

A.    Botnet
B.    Ransomware
C.    Polymorphic malware
D.    Armored virus

Answer: A

A company is currently using the following configuration:

* IAS server with certificate-based EAP-PEAP and MSCHAP
* Unencrypted authentication via PAP

A security administrator needs to configure a new wireless setup with the following configurations:

* PAP authentication method
* PEAP and EAP provide two-factor authentication

Which of the following forms of authentication are being used? (Select TWO).

A.    PAP
B.    PEAP
E.    EAP

Answer: AF

A security administrator is trying to encrypt communication. For which of the following reasons should administrator take advantage of the Subject Alternative Name (SAM) attribute of a certificate?

A.    It can protect multiple domains
B.    It provides extended site validation
C.    It does not require a trusted certificate authority
D.    It protects unlimited subdomains

Answer: B

After a merger between two companies a security analyst has been asked to ensure that the organization’s systems are secured against infiltration by any former employees that were terminated during the transition.
Which of the following actions are MOST appropriate to harden applications against infiltration by former employees? (Select TWO)

A.    Monitor VPN client access
B.    Reduce failed login out settings
C.    Develop and implement updated access control policies
D.    Review and address invalid login attempts
E.    Increase password complexity requirements
F.    Assess and eliminate inactive accounts

Answer: CF

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An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?

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If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

Answer: B

Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

A.    SOW
B.    PO
C.    SU
D.    MOU

Answer: B

A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

A.    Risk register
B.    Issue log
C.    Communication plan
D.    Status report

Answer: A

Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
B.    A program contains an element of the project.
C.    A program is a part of a project.
D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

Answer: A

Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

A.    Test-driven
B.    Daily standup meetings
C.    Short project durations
D.    Defined list of requirements

Answer: B

Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

A.    Relocation
B.    Scope
C.    Business process
D.    Schedule
E.    Risk event

Answer: AC

A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

A.    Project charter
B.    Project management plan
C.    Project statement of work
D.    Project schedule

Answer: B

The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

Answer: CD

Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

Answer: B

A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

Answer: AB

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After pushing a security policy from Panorama to a PA-3020 firewall, the firewall administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama’s traffic logs. What could be the problem?

A.    A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
B.    Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.
C.    The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
D.    None of the firewall’s policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile

Answer: D

A critical US-CERT notification is published regarding a newly discovered botnet. The malware is very evasive and is not reliably detected by endpoint antivirus software. Furthermore, SSL is used to tunnel malicious traffic to command-and-control servers on the internet and SSL Forward Proxy Decryption is not enabled.
Which component once enabled on a perimeter firewall will allow the identification of existing infected hosts in an environment?

A.    Anti-Spyware profiles applied outbound security policies with DNS Query action set to sinkhole
B.    File Blocking profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
C.    Vulnerability Protection profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to block
D.    Antivirus profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert

Answer: A
Starting with PAN-OS 6.0, DNS sinkhole is an action that can be enabled in Anti-Spyware profiles. A DNS sinkhole can be used to identify infected hosts on a protected network using DNS traffic in environments where the firewall can see the DNS query to a malicious URL.
The DNS sinkhole enables the Palo Alto Networks device to forge a response to a DNS query for a known malicious domain/URL and causes the malicious domain name to resolve to a definable IP address (fake IP) that is given to the client. If the client attempts to access the fake IP address and there is a security rule in place that blocks traffic to this IP, the information is recorded in the logs.

Which two statements are correct for the out-of-box configuration for Palo Alto Networks NGFWs? (Choose two)

A.    The devices are pre-configured with a virtual wire pair out the first two interfaces.
B.    The devices are licensed and ready for deployment.
C.    The management interface has an IP address of and allows SSH and HTTPS connections.
D.    A default bidirectional rule is configured that allows Untrust zone traffic to go to the Trust zone.
E.     The interfaces are pingable.

Answer: AC

A network security engineer is asked to perform a Return Merchandise Authorization (RMA) on a firewall
Which part of files needs to be imported back into the replacement firewall that is using Panorama?

A.    Device state and license files
B.    Configuration and serial number files
C.    Configuration and statistics files
D.    Configuration and Large Scale VPN (LSVPN) setups file

Answer: A

A network engineer has revived a report of problems reaching through vr1 on the firewall. The routing table on this firewall is extensive and complex.
Which CLI command will help identify the issue?

A.    test routing fib virtual-router vr1
B.    show routing route type static destination
C.    test routing fib-lookup ip virtual-router vr1
D.    show routing interface

Answer: C
This document explains how to perform a fib lookup for a particular destination within a particular virtual router on a Palo Alto Networks firewall.
1. Select the desired virtual router from the list of virtual routers configured with the command:
> test routing fib-lookup virtual-router <value>
2. Specify a destination IP address:
> test routing fib-lookup virtual-router default ip <ip address>

Which two mechanisms help prevent a spilt brain scenario an Active/Passive High Availability (HA) pair? (Choose two)

A.    Configure the management interface as HA3 Backup
B.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA1 Backup
C.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA2 Backup
D.    Configure the management interface as HA2 Backup
E.    Configure the management interface as HA1 Backup
F.    Configure ethernet1/1 as HA3 Backup

Answer: BE
E: For firewalls without dedicated HA ports, select two data interfaces for the HA2 link and the backup HA1 link. Then, use an Ethernet cable to connect these in-band HA interfaces across both firewalls.
Use the management port for the HA1 link and ensure that the management ports can connect to each other across your network.
1. In Device > High Availability > General, edit the Control Link (HA1) section.
2. Select the interface that you have cabled for use as the HA1 link in the Port drop down menu. Set the IP address and netmask. Enter a Gateway IP address only if the HA1 interfaces are on separate subnets. Do not add a gateway if the devices are directly connected.

What are three valid actions in a File Blocking Profile? (Choose three)

A.    Forward
B.    Block
C.    Alret
D.    Upload
E.    Reset-both
F.    Continue

Answer: BCF
You can configure a file blocking profile with the following actions:
Forward – When the specified file type is detected, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis. A log
is also generated in the data filtering log.
Block – When the specified file type is detected, the file is blocked and a customizable block
page is presented to the user. A log is also generated in the data filtering log.
Alert – When the specified file type is detected, a log is generated in the data filtering log.
Continue – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable response page is presented
to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. A log is also generated in
the data filtering log. Because this type of forwarding action requires user interaction, it is only
applicable for web traffic.
Continue-and-forward – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable continuation
page is presented to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. If the
user clicks through the continue page to download the file, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis.
A log is also generated in the data filtering log.

An Administrator is configuring an IPSec VPN toa Cisco ASA at the administrator’s home and experiencing issues completing the connection. The following is th output from the command:


What could be the cause of this problem?

A.    The public IP addresses do not match for both the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA.
B.    The Proxy IDs on the Palo Alto Networks Firewall do not match the settings on the ASA.
C.    The shared secrets do not match between the Palo Alto firewall and the ASA
D.    The deed peer detection settings do not match between the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA

Answer: B
The Proxy IDs could have been checked for mismatch.
References: https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/IPSec-Error-IKE-Phase-1-Negotiation-is-Failed-as-Initiator-Main/ta-p/59532

Which interface configuration will accept specific VLAN IDs?

A.    Tab Mode
B.    Subinterface
C.    Access Interface
D.    Trunk Interface

Answer: B
You can only assign a single VLAN to a subinterface, and not to the physical interface. Each subinterface must have a VLAN ID before it can pass traffic.

Palo Alto Networks maintains a dynamic database of malicious domains.
Which two Security Platform components use this database to prevent threats? (Choose two)

A.    Brute-force signatures
B.    BrightCloud Url Filtering
C.    PAN-DB URL Filtering
D.    DNS-based command-and-control signatures

Answer: CD
C: PAN-DB categorizes URLs based on their content at the domain, file and page level, and receives updates from WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment every 30 minutes to make sure that, when web content changes, so do categorizations. This continuous feedback loop enables you to keep pace with the rapidly changing nature of the web, automatically.
D: DNS is a very necessary and ubiquitous application, as such, it is a very commonly abused protocol for command-and-control and data exfiltration. This tech brief summarizes the DNS classification, inspection and protection capabilities supported by our next-generation security platform, which includes:
1.    Malformed DNS messages (symptomatic of vulnerability exploitation attack).
2.    DNS responses with suspicious composition (abused query types, DNS-based denial of service attacks).
3.    DNS queries for known malicious domains. Our ability to prevent threats from hiding within DNS
The passive DNS network feature allows you to opt-in to share anonymized DNS query and response data with our global passive DNS network. The data is continuously mined to discover malicious domains that are then added to the PAN-OS DNS signature set that is delivered daily, enabling timely detection of compromised hosts within the network and the disruption of command-and-control channels that rely on name resolution.

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Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS-based.
B.    Proxy-based.
C.    Flow-based.
D.    URL-based.

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