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B.    60 seconds
C.    300 seconds
D.    600 seconds
E.    3600 seconds
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Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?

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QUESTION 31
Drag and Drop Question
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QUESTION 31
What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?

A.    3
B.    4
C.    5
D.    6

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?

A.    172.23.175.210/15
B.    10.100.74.127/25
C.    192.168.73.223/29
D.    10.230.33.15/28

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)

331

A.    regular fromat WWNs are being used
B.    the command show flogl database was run
C.    the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
D.    registered name formate WWNs are being used
E.    extended format WWNs are being used.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 34
A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets.
Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?

A.    zoning
B.    port security
C.    LUN masking
D.    VSANs

Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which device does a network engineer use to break the network environment into smaller collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    repeater
E.    CSU/DSU

Answer: A

QUESTION 36
An engineer must copy a new configuration to a Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch from a TFTP server.
Which two commands should be used to retain the configuration after a reboot? (Choose two.)

A.    write memory
B.    copy running-config startup-config
C.    copy tftp://10.10.1.1/my-config running-config
D.    copy tftp://10.10.1.1/my-config startup-config
E.    write erase

Answer: BC

QUESTION 37
At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated?

A.    transport
B.    data-link
C.    presentation
D.    application

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which two hosts are part of subnet 172.16.160.0/20? (Choose two.)

A.    172.16.168.0
B.    172.16.176.1
C.    172.16.160.255
D.    172.16.160.0
E.    172.16.176.255

Answer: AC

QUESTION 39
Which command should be used to determine which hosts are Fibre Channel targets?

A.    MDS-A# show host database
B.    MDS-A# show flogi database
C.    MDS-A# show fens database
D.    MDS-A# show host-id

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which two options are benefits of deploying FCoE beyond the access layer?

A.    higher throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches.
B.    FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.
C.    reduction in equipment requirements.
D.    improved security compared to traditional Fibre Channel.
E.    increased application support.

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 41
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QUESTION 41
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B.    192.168.2.62
C.    192.168.2.61
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QUESTION 51
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
The database contains a Product table created by using the following definition:

511

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the Product table.
What should you do?

A.    Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B.    Implement Unicode Compression.
C.    Implement row-level compression.
D.    Implement page-level compression.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
A: Only a single index is used.
B: Unicode compression supports the fixed-length nchar(n) and nvarchar(n) data types.
C: Row-level compression does not affect VARCHAR och CHAR columns.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/data-compression
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/page-compression-implementation
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/row-compression-implementation

QUESTION 52
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
After a routine shutdown, the drive that contains tempdb fails.
You need to be able to start the SQL Server.
What should you do?

A.    Modify tempdb location in startup parameters.
B.    Start SQL Server in minimal configuration mode.
C.    Start SQL Server in single-user mode.
D.    Configure SQL Server to bypass Windows application logging.

Answer: B
Explanation:
If you have configuration problems that prevent the server from starting, you can start an instance of Microsoft SQL Server by using the minimal configuration startup option.
When you start an instance of SQL Server in minimal configuration mode, note the following:
Only a single user can connect, and the CHECKPOINT process is not executed.
Remote access and read-ahead are disabled.
Startup stored procedures do not run.
tempdb is configured at the smallest possible size.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/start-sql-server-with-minimal-configuration

QUESTION 53
You administer a single server that contains a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 default instance.
You plan to install a new application that requires the deployment of a database on the server. The application login requires sysadmin permissions.
You need to ensure that the application login is unable to access other production databases.
What should you do?

A.    Use the SQL Server default instance and configure an affinity mask.
B.    Install a new named SQL Server instance on the server.
C.    Use the SQL Server default instance and enable Contained Databases.
D.    Install a new default SQL Server instance on the server.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/sql-server/install/work-with-multiple-versions-and-instances-of-sql-server

QUESTION 54
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise Edition server that uses 64 cores.
You discover performance issues when large amounts of data are written to tables under heavy system load.
You need to limit the number of cores that handle I/O.
What should you configure?

A.    Processor affinity
B.    Lightweight pooling
C.    Max worker threads
D.    I/O affinity

Answer: D
Explanation:
The affinity Input-Output (I/O) mask Server Configuration Option.
To carry out multitasking, Microsoft Windows 2000 and Windows Server 2003 sometimes move process threads among different processors. Although efficient from an operating system point of view, this activity can reduce Microsoft SQL Server performance under heavy system loads, as each processor cache is repeatedly reloaded with data. Assigning processors to specific threads can improve performance under these conditions by eliminating processor reloads; such an association between a thread and a processor is called processor affinity.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189629.aspx

QUESTION 55
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that your backup will continue if any invalid checksum is encountered.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    STANDBY
B.    Differential
C.    FULL
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    BULK_LOGGED
F.    CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR
G.    SIMPLE
H.    DBO_ONLY
I.    COPY_ONLY
J.    SKIP
K.    RESTART
L.    Transaction log
M.    NO_CHECKSUM
N.    NORECOVERY

Answer: F
Explanation:
The CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR option, of the Transact-SQL BACKUP command, instructs BACKUP to continue despite encountering errors such as invalid checksums or torn pages.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql

QUESTION 56
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
On Wednesday at 10:00 hours, the development team requests you to refresh the database on a development server by using the most recent version.
You need to perform a full database backup that will be restored on the development server.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: L
Explanation:
COPY_ONLY specifies that the backup is a copy-only backup, which does not affect the normal sequence of backups. A copy-only backup is created independently of your regularly scheduled, conventional backups. A copy-only backup does not affect your overall backup and restore procedures for the database.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql

QUESTION 57
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the minimum amount of data is lost.
Which recovery model should the database use?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The full recovery model requires log backups. No work is lost due to a lost or damaged data file. Can recover to a specific point in time, assuming that your backups are complete up to that point in time.
Incorrect Answers:
F: The bulk logged recovery model can recover to the end of any backup. Point-in-time recovery is not supported.
M: The simple recovery model can recover only to the end of a backup.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/recovery-models-sql-server

QUESTION 58
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the backup size is as small as possible.
Which backup should you perform every two hours?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: J
Explanation:
Minimally, you must have created at least one full backup before you can create any log backups. After that, the transaction log can be backed up at any time unless the log is already being backed up.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/transaction-log-backups-sql-server

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QUESTION 81
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database named Orders.
Users report that during peak usage periods, certain operations are taking more time than expected.
Your initial analysis suggests that blocking is the cause.
You need to gather more data to be able to determine which processes are being blocked and to identify the root cause.
What should you do?

A.    Start a trace using SQL Server Profiler to catch the Lock: Deadlock event.
B.    Use sp_configure to set the blocked process threshold. Start a trace using SQL Server Profiler to catch the Blocked Process Report event.
C.    Schedule a SQL Agent job to run every 60 seconds and insert the results of executing the sys.dm_os_wait_stats DMV into a table.
D.    Use System Monitor to catch the Lock Waits/sec event.

Answer: B

QUESTION 82
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database.
Users report that a billing application becomes unresponsive during busy times of the day.
While investigating, you notice large number of processes taking or waiting for table locks.
You suspect that SQL Server is assigning stronger locks to queries.
You start a SQL Profiler trace.
Which event should you select?

A.    Deadlock graph
B.    Lock: Escalation
C.    Lock: Timeout
D.    Lock: Deadlock

Answer: B

QUESTION 83
You install Microsoft SQL Server 2016 on a new server.
After setup is complete, you attempt to start the SQL Server service.
After being in a starting state for a few moments, the service goes back to a stopped state.
You need to determine the cause of the failure.
Which file should you use?

A.    %programfiles%\Microsoft SQL
Server\MSSQL11.MSSQLSERVER|MSSQL\Log\Errorlog
B.    %programfiles%\Microsoft SQL Server\110\setup Bootstrap\Log\Summary.txt
C.    %programfiles%\Microsoft SQL
Server\MSSQL11.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\mastlog.idf
D.    %programfiles%\Microsoft SQL Server\110\Shared\ErrorDmpr[XXXX] .mdmp

Answer: A

QUESTION 84
You administer a Windows Azure SQL Database database named Inventory that contains a stored procedure named p_AddInventory.
Users need to be able to SELECT from all tables in the database and execute the stored procedure.
You need to grant only the necessary permissions.
What should you do?

A.    Grant EXECUTE permission on p_AddInventory to all users.
Grant VIEW DEFINITION to all users.
B.    Grant EXECUTE permission on p_AddInventory to all users.
Add all users to the db_datawriter role.
C.    Add all users to the db_owner role.
D.    Grant EXECUTE permission on p_Add!nventory to all users.
Add all users to the db_datareader role.

Answer: D

QUESTION 85
You administer a SQL Server 2016 database instance.
You need to configure the SQL Server Database Engine service on a failover cluster.
Which user account should you use?

A.    A domain user
B.    The BUILTIN\SYSTEM account
C.    A local user with Run as Service permissions
D.    TheSQLBrowser account

Answer: A

QUESTION 86
You administer a Windows Azure SQL Database database named Human_Resources.
The database contains 2 tables named Employees and SalaryDetails.
You add two Windows groups as logins for the server:

– CORP\Employees – All company employees
– CORP\HRAdmins – HR administrators only
– HR Administrators are also company employees.

You need to grant users access according to the following requirements:

– CORP\Employees should have SELECT access to the Employees table.
– Only users in CORP\HRAdmins should have SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table.
– Logins are based only on Windows security groups.

What should you do?

A.    Create a database role called Employees.
Add CORP\Employees to the db_datareader role.
Add all company employees except HR administrators to the Employees role.
Deny SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the Employees role.
B.    Create a database role called HRAdmins.
Add all company employees except HR administrators to the db_datareader role, Add all HR administrators to the HRAdmins role.
Grant SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the HRAdmins role.
Deny SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the db_datareader role.
C.    Create two database roles: Employees and HRAdmins.
Add all company employees to the Employees role.
Add HR administrators to the HRAdmins role.
Grant SELECT access to all tables except SalaryDetails to the Employees role.
Grant SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the HRAdmins role.
Deny SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the Employees role.
D.    Create a database role called Employees.
Add all HR administrators to the db_datareader role.
Add all company employees to the Employees role.
Grant SELECT access to all tables except the SalaryDetails table to the Employees role.
Deny SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the Employees role.

Answer: D

QUESTION 87
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database instance.
You plan to migrate the database to Windows Azure SQL Database.
You verify that all objects contained in the database are compatible with Windows Azure SQL Database.
You need to ensure that database users and required server logins are migrated to Windows Azure SQL Database.
What should you do?

A.    Use the Copy Database wizard.
B.    Back up the database from the local server and restore it to Windows Azure SQL Database.
C.    Use the Database Transfer wizard.
D.    Use SQL Server Management Studio to deploy the database to Windows Azure SQL Database.

Answer: D

QUESTION 88
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database.
The database is currently configured to log ship to a secondary server.
You are preparing to cut over to the secondary server by stopping log-shipping and bringing the secondary database online.
You want to perform a tail-log backup.
You need to leave the primary database in a restoring state.
Which option of the BACKUP LOG command should you use?

A.    NO_TRUNCATE
B.    NORECOVERY
C.    STANDBY
D.    FORMAT

Answer: B

QUESTION 89
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database.
You want to make a full backup of the database to a file on disk. In doing so, you need to output the progress of the backup.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    STATS
B.    COMPRESSION
C.    CHECKSUM
D.    IN IT

Answer: A

QUESTION 90
You administer two Microsoft SQL Server 2016 servers named ProdSrv1 and ProdSrv2.
ProdSrv1 is configured as a Distributor.
Both servers are configured to use the Windows NT Service virtual accounts for all SQL Services.
You are configuring snapshot replication from ProdSrv1 to ProdSrv2 by using ProdSrv2 as a pull subscriber.
The distribution agent on ProdSrv2 regularly fails, displaying the following error message:

“Cannot access the file. Operating system error code 5 (Access is denied.).”

You need to configure the distribution agent by granting only the minimum required access to all accounts.
What should you do?

A.    Configure the Subscriber to use the Local System account.
B.    Configure the SQL Server Agent service to run under the Local System account.
Configure the Subscriber to use the SQL Server Agent service account.
C.    Configure the SQL Server Agent service to run under a Windows domain account.
Configure the Subscriber to use the SQL Server Agent service account.
Grant FULL CONTROL access for the domain account to the ReplData share on ProdSrv1.
D.    Configure the Subscriber to use a Windows domain account.
Grant READ access for the domain account to the ReplData share on ProdSrv1.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 51
The New-CIPolicy cmdlet creates a Code Integrity policy as an .xml file. If you do NOT supply either driver files or rules what will happen?

A.    The cmdlet performs a system scan
B.    An exception/warning is shown because either one is required
C.    Nothing
D.    The cmdlet searches the Code Integrity Audit log for drivers

Answer: A
Explanation:
If you do not supply either driver files or rules, this cmdlet performs a system scan similar to the Get-SystemDriver cmdlet.
The cmdlet generates rules based on Level. If you specify the Audit parameter, this cmdlet scans the Code Integrity Audit log instead.

QUESTION 52
Read the following statement carefully and answer YES or NO.
You create a rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” that allows everyone in the organization to run Windows but does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor.
The effect of this rule would prevent users such as help desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks.
To resolve this problem, you create a second rule that applies to the Helpdesk user group: “Allow Helpdesk to run Registry Editor.”
However, if you created a deny rule that did not allow any users to run Registry Editor, would the deny rule override the second rule that allows the Helpdesk user group to run Registry Editor?

A.    NO
B.    YES

Answer: B
Explanation:
For example, the rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” allows everyone in the organization to run Windows but does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor. The effect of this rule would prevent users such as help desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks. To resolve this problem, create a second rule that applies to the Helpdesk user group: “Allow Helpdesk to run Registry Editor.” If you create a deny rule that does not allow any users to run Registry Editor, the deny rule will override the second rule that allows the Helpdesk user group to run Registry Editor.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd759068(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 53
A shielding data file (also called a provisioning data file or PDK file) is an encrypted file that a tenant or VM owner creates to protect important VM configuration information.
A fabric administrator uses the shielding data file when creating a shielded VM, but is unable to view or use the information contained in the file.
Which information can be stored in the shielding data file?

A.    Administrator credentials
B.    All of these
C.    A Key Protector
D.    Unattend.xml

Answer: B

QUESTION 54
You’re creating new a GPO for WSUS settings so that client computers retrieve updates from your company’s official WSUS server.
In the Group Policy Management Editor you have drilled down to Computer Configuration\Policies\Administrative Templates\Windows Components\Windows Update and have right clicked the “Specify intranet Microsoft update service location” and chosen Edit.
If the FQDN for your WSUS server is CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com, which URL would you enter into the field?

A.    http://CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com:443
B.    http://CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com:21
C.    http://CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com:80
D.    http://CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com:8530

Answer: D
Explanation:
The default HTTP port for WSUS is 8530, and the default HTTP over Secure Sockets Layer (HTTPS) port is 8531.
If you’re unsure which port WSUS is using for client communication, right-click the WSUS Administration site in IIS Manager, and then click Edit Bindings.

QUESTION 55
Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration.
Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks.
Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan?

A.    Start-MpWDOScan
B.    Start-MpScan
C.    Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $true
D.    Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true

Answer: A
Explanation:
Some malicious software can be particularly difficult to remove from your PC. Windows Defender Offline (Start-MpWDOScan) can help to find and remove this using up-to-date threat definitions.

QUESTION 56
_____ enables easier management for BitLocker enabled desktops and servers in a domain environment by providing automatic unlock of operating system volumes at system reboot when connected to a wired corporate network. This feature requires the client hardware to have a DHCP driver implemented in its UEFI firmware.

A.    Network Unlock
B.    EFS recovery agent
C.    JEA
D.    Credential Guard

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj574173(v=ws.11).aspx
See last sentence of first paragraph: “This feature requires the client hardware to have a DHCP driver implemented in its UEFI firmware”

QUESTION 57
This question relates to Windows Firewall and related technologies.
These rules use IPsec to secure traffic while it crosses the network.
You use these rules to specify that connections between two computers must be authenticated or encrypted.
What is the name for these rules?

A.    Connection Security Rules
B.    Firewall Rules
C.    TCP Rules
D.    DHP Rules

Answer: A

QUESTION 58
Windows Firewall rules can be configured using PowerShell.
The “Set-NetFirewallProfile” cmdlet configures settings that apply to the per-profile configurations of the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security.
What is the default setting for the AllowInboundRules parameter when managing a GPO?

A.    FALSE
B.    NotConfigured

Answer: B
Explanation:
The default setting when managing a computer is True. When managing a GPO, the default setting is NotConfigured. The NotConfigured value is only valid when configuring a Group Policy Object (GPO). This parameter removes the setting from the GPO, which results in the policy not changing the value on the computer when the policy is applied.

QUESTION 59
The “Network Security: Restrict NTLM: NTLM authentication in this domain” policy setting allows you to deny or allow NTLM authentication within a domain from this domain controller.
Which value would you choose so that the domain controller will deny all NTLM authentication logon attempts using accounts from this domain to all servers in the domain.
The NTLM authentication attempts will be blocked and will return an NTLM blocked error unless the server name is on the exception list in the Network security: Restrict NTLM: Add server exceptions in this domain policy setting.

A.    Deny for domain accounts
B.    Deny for domain accounts to domain servers
C.    Deny all
D.    Deny for domain servers

Answer: B

QUESTION 60
Encryption-supported VMs are intended for use where the fabric administrators are fully trusted.
For example, an enterprise might deploy a guarded fabric in order to ensure VM disks are encrypted at-rest for compliance purposes.
Shielded VMs are intended for use in fabrics where the data and state of the VM must be protected from both fabric administrators and untrusted software that might be running on the Hyper-V hosts.
Is the Virtual Machine Connection (Console), HID devices (e.g. keyboard, mouse) ON or OFF for Encryption Supported VM’s?

A.    Off
B.    On

Answer: B
Explanation:
Shielded VMs will never permit a VM console connection whereas a fabric administrator can turn this protection on or off for encryption supported VMs.

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QUESTION 121
You deploy two servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You install the Failovers Clustering feature on both servers.
You need to create a workgroup cluster.
What should you do?

A.    Create matching local administrative accounts on both of the servers. Assign the same primary DNS suffix to both of the servers. Run the New-Cluster cmdlet and specify an administrative access point of None.
B.    Configure both of the server to be in a workgroup named Workgroup. Configure the Cluster Service to log on as Network Service. Run the New-Cluster cmdlet and specify an administrative access point of DNS.
C.    Create matching local administrative accounts on both of the servers. Assign the same primary DNS suffix to both of the servers. Run the New-Cluster cmdlet and specify an administrative access point of DNS.
D.    Configure both of the server to be in a workgroup named Workgroup. Configure the Cluster Service to log on as Network Service. Run the New-Cluster cmdlet and specify an administrative access point of None. Continue reading “[May 2018] Easily Pass 70-743 Exam With Lead2pass New Microsoft 70-743 Brain Dumps 237q”

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QUESTION 41
If you chose the Group Policy based provisioning method for IPAM, you must also provide a GPO name prefix in the provisioning wizard. After providing a GPO name prefix, the wizard will display the GPO names that must be created in domains that will be managed by IPAM.
How many GPO’s are created from the following PowerShell command?

Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioning -Domain contoso.com -GpoPrefixName IPAM1-DelegatedGpoUser user1 -IpamServerFqdn ipam1.contoso.com

A.    1
B.    3
C.    2
D.    4

Answer: B
Explanation:
This example creates three GPOs (IPAM1_DHCP, IPAM1_DNS, IPAM1_DC_NPS) and links them to the contoso.com domain. These GPOs enable access for the server ipam1.contoso.com using the domain administrator account user1. Note: In this example, the hostname of the IPAM server is used as a GPO prefix, however this is not required.

QUESTION 42
Complete the missing term:
The SLB ______ processes inbound network traffic and maps VIPs to DIPs, then forwards the traffic to the correct DIP.

A.    Host Agent
B.    Northbound API
C.    SCVMM
D.    MUX

Answer: D
Explanation:
The SLB MUX processes inbound network traffic and maps VIPs to DIPs, then forwards the traffic to the correct DIP. Each MUX also uses BGP to publish VIP routes to edge routers. BGP Keep Alive notifies MUXes when a MUX fails, which allows active MUXes to redistribute the load in case of a MUX failure – essentially providing load balancing for the load balancers.

QUESTION 43
Which of the following is NOT a recognized private IP address ranges are specified by Internet Request for Comments (RFC) 1918?

A.    10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
B.    192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
C.    172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
D.    128.24.0.0 – 128.24.255.255

Answer: D

QUESTION 44
Because the network ID bits must always be chosen in a contiguous fashion from the high order bits, a shorthand way of expressing a subnet mask is to denote the number of bits that define the network ID as a network prefix using the network prefix notation: /<# of bits>.
What is the Network Prefix for Class B?

A.    /8
B.    /64
C.    /24
D.    /16

Answer: D

QUESTION 45
This question is regarding DNS Logging and Diagnosis.
Which event is logged for a Recursive query timeout?

A.    analytic event
B.    audit event

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Software Defined Networking (SDN) provides a method to centrally configure and manage physical and virtual network devices such as routers, switches, and gateways in your datacenter. Virtual network elements such as Hyper-V Virtual Switch, Hyper-V Network Virtualization, and RAS Gateway are designed to be integral elements of your SDN infrastructure.
Software defined networking provides which of the following capabilities?

A.    The ability to abstract your applications and workloads from the underlying physical network, which is accomplished by virtualizing the network.
B.    The ability to implement network policies in a consistent manner at scale, even as you deploy new workloads or move workloads across virtual or physical networks.
C.    The ability to centrally define and control policies that govern both physical and virtual networks, including traffic flow between these two network types.
D.    All of these

Answer: D

QUESTION 47
With client reservations, you can reserve an IP address for permanent use by a DHCP client.
Typically, you will need to do this if the client uses an IP address that was assigned using another method for TCP/IP configuration.
If you are reserving an IP address for a new client, or an address that is different from its current one, you should verify that the address has not already been leased by the DHCP server. Reserving an IP address in a scope does not automatically force a client currently using that address to stop using it.
Which ipconfig command would you use if the address is already in use?

A.    ipconfig /flushdns
B.    ipconfig /release
C.    ipconfig /registerdns
D.    ipconfig /renew

Answer: B
Explanation:
If the address is already in use, the client using the address must first release it by issuing a DHCP release message (DHCPRELEASE).
You can do this by typing ipconfig /release at the command prompt of a client computer running Windows XP or Windows Vista.
Reserving an IP address at the DHCP server also does not force the new client for which the reservation is made to immediately move to that address. In this case, too, the client must first issue a DHCP request message (DHCPREQUEST). You can do this by typing ipconfig /renew at the command prompt of a client computer.

QUESTION 48
The DNS Server service provides several types of zones. Which zone helps to keep delegated zone information current, improve name resolution and simplify DNS administration, but is not an alternative for enhancing redundancy and load sharing?

A.    secondary
B.    stub
C.    none of these
D.    primary

Answer: B
Explanation:
When a zone that this DNS server hosts is a stub zone, this DNS server is a source only for information about the authoritative name servers for this zone. The zone at this server must be obtained from another DNS server that hosts the zone. This DNS server must have network access to the remote DNS server to copy the authoritative name server information about the zone.
When a DNS server loads a stub zone, such as widgets.thetoycompany.com, it queries the master servers, which can be in different locations, for the necessary resource records of the authoritative servers for the zone widgets.thetoycompany.com. The list of master servers may contain a single server or multiple servers, and it can be changed anytime.

QUESTION 49
The following example displays DNS query results that are performed from a DNS client computer using the Resolve-DnsName cmdlet.

resolve-dnsname -name finance.secure.contoso.com -type A -server dns1.contoso.com

You want to include the DO bit in a DNS query, to make the client is DNSSEC-aware, so that it is OK for the DNS server to return DNSSEC data in a response.
What extra parameter should you use?

A.    DnssecCd
B.    DnssecOk
C.    LlmnrOnly
D.    DnsOnly

Answer: B
Explanation:
When DO=1, the client indicates that it is able to receive DNSSEC data if available. Because the secure.contoso.com zone is signed, an RRSIG resource record was included with the DNS response when DO=1.

QUESTION 50
Which mode is being described below?
Deploy the RAS Gateway as an edge VPN server, an edge DirectAccess server, or both simultaneously.
In this configuration, RAS Gateway provides remote employees with connectivity to your network by using either VPN or DirectAccess connections.

A.    Multitenant mode
B.    Single tenant mode

Answer: B

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